The Oera Linda Forum

Why did Sandbach in defining fragments translate FRYDOM* (Dutch/German: vrijheid/Freiheit) as liberty (derived from Latin) instead of freedom?

In todays blogpost Oera Linda — comparing translations the relevant fragments are listed, as well as entries of both words in Webster's Complete Dictionary of the English Language, London 1886 (edition of 1880).

[*once: FRYHÉD; he also once translated been set free (FRY LÉTEN WÉSA) as obtained their liberty]

Maybe he wanted to connect freedom to Liberalia by using the word 'liberty'. Just a guess though.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liberalia

2b. Our Primal History - Earth bore all grasses, herbs, and trees [...] After the twelfth Yulefeast, she bore three girls
2g. Festa: Laws and Frya’s Day - Festa said: “All things that are initiated, whatever they may be, on the day that we have dedicated to Frya, they will always fail miserably.” Since time has proven that she was right, it has become a law that [...] on Frya’s Day one may do nothing other than celebrate blissful feasts.

My guess is that he hardly had a look at Otterma's transliteration, i.e. at the manuscript's original language, nor that he was aware that free/frei/frij/fri/vrij/frjáls are northern European, while liber varieties are from the south (so-called Latin languages).