Here is a link going over how proto-semitic languages lost the ability to pronounce the p sound and it doesn't exist until british influence.
https://www.scirp.org/journal/paperinfo ... rid=100351
What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
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half life over
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Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
Some notes:
The words ARBÉD (work, German: 'Arbeit') and ARNE (harvest, German: 'Ernte') may be related.
Why don't you use an English translation?
That Arien and Aris (and varieties) were typical Westfrisian man's names must be noted. 'Hadrian/Adrian' don't have to be the more original form of the name.At the same time Arjan is typically germanic.
The words ARBÉD (work, German: 'Arbeit') and ARNE (harvest, German: 'Ernte') may be related.
Cecrops I (SÉKROPS in Oera Linda?) is also known as a 'mythological' fish-man. He is also said to have been the founder and the first king of Athens. Confusion with the actual founders (according to OL)?And what with the Oannes of Sumer (who is said to have given the Ur civilisation all their knowledge, half fish, half man, at night retreating to the sea)?
Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
Thnks! Makes it more clear for me.
Off course: dutch word still used "wrang". As in bitter feeling. Something is not right, not in it's place.
Didn't realise ...
Seems there is connection with "twisted, deviant" in earlier usage and meaning.
So the "Wrangen" (Yren) could be the people not in place there (immigrants?) or just the ones opposing the priesthood.
Hence: wrathful against priesthood (what OLB states were names given by the priests because of their opposition)
Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
Elsewhere in OL, ÍRE/ÍRA is used in an ire related context:
ch.2d Finda
[008] VMBE SKOTSE WIRDA WÀRTH HJU ÍRE
At coarse words she would fly into a rage (lit.: ...she became ireful)
ch. 16f Panj-ab Report
[165] THISA MINSKA SIND WÉRENTLIK ÍRA BONAR
These people are genuine ireful murderers
From accepted Oldfrisian sources/dictionaries, īre is also known to mean 'furious' (German: 'zornig').
WRANG (besides from modern Dutch), we know from other fragments in OL:
15b. Princes and Priests
[135] EMONG HJARA FORSINDE GODUM HÉDON HJA [30] ÁK WRANG.WRÀDA DROCHTNE E.SKÉPEN.
Among their invented gods, they had also created bitter-cruel deities.
16e. Purity of Language
[159] THA BIDROGLIKA PRESTERA ÀND THA WRANG WRÉJA FORSTA.
The deceptive priests and the bitter-cruel princes,
16f. Panj-ab Report
[167] GOLD.GÉLE APLE HWÉR FON WELKE SÁ SWÉT ALS HÛNING SIND ÀND WELKE SA WRANG ALS ÉK.
gold-yellow apples, some of which are sweet as honey, others sour as vinegar.
From dictionaries of old Dutch sources, wrang is well known, not only used as 'sour', but also 'hostile', etc.
Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
Because i couldn't find there quickly the word as used in OLB: "WRANGEN".
Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
Great, thnks.ott wrote: ↑07 Aug 2023, 18:07
Elsewhere in OL, ÍRE/ÍRA is used in an ire related context:
ch.2d Finda
[008] VMBE SKOTSE WIRDA WÀRTH HJU ÍRE
At coarse words she would fly into a rage (lit.: ...she became ireful)
Scots and Irish together
Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
Makes me wonder:
so the Wrangen were wrong in their ire (in the eyes of the priests).
so the Wrangen were wrong in their ire (in the eyes of the priests).
Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
Interesting!half life over wrote: ↑07 Aug 2023, 16:14 Here is a link going over how proto-semitic languages lost the ability to pronounce the p sound and it doesn't exist until british influence.
https://www.scirp.org/journal/paperinfo ... rid=100351
Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
Besides the possible loss of pronounciation of the 'Ph' or 'F',
on written level there could also be confusion if the FR of FRYAN is placed without much space.
The F could be read as an A, with the back of the R to close the F.
FRYAN=ARYAN (in another lettertype
on written level there could also be confusion if the FR of FRYAN is placed without much space.
The F could be read as an A, with the back of the R to close the F.
FRYAN=ARYAN (in another lettertype
Re: What is the relationship between the Fryans and the Aryan peoples?
From the OLB:
"To the west of Panj-ab (Indus) live the ‘Ira’, or ‘wrathful’, as well as the ‘Gedrostne’ (Gedrosians), or ‘runaways’, and the ‘Oryetten’ (Oritae), or ‘forgotten’. All these names were given them by the envious priests, from whom they had fled to save their own morals and beliefs. When they arrived here, our ancestors settled on both shores of the Panj-ab. But because of the priests, the settlers on the eastern shore later moved likewise to the western shore.[3] Thence we became acquainted with the Ira and the others. The Ira (Iranians) are not ireful, but good people [165] who do not tolerate or worship statues of gods. They also will not permit temples or priests and, just like us, they uphold the sacred light of Festa, as well as maintaining permanent fires in their homes."
So the OLB tells us that the Hindu priests spoke practically the same language as the coming Frians via the Sindh?
And the Iranians were allready there, fled for these priests. They seem to have practically same culture as Frians (no idoltry, burning flame, ...) and are called good people (aryan, nolble?) while the name is pretended to be the opposite (ire, wrath).
Then both Iranians and Hindu priests must have been there allready speaking same "Frian"-like language when Geertman arrived via the sea.
Iranians coming from North-India into Iran, not the opposite.
Am I missing something?
"To the west of Panj-ab (Indus) live the ‘Ira’, or ‘wrathful’, as well as the ‘Gedrostne’ (Gedrosians), or ‘runaways’, and the ‘Oryetten’ (Oritae), or ‘forgotten’. All these names were given them by the envious priests, from whom they had fled to save their own morals and beliefs. When they arrived here, our ancestors settled on both shores of the Panj-ab. But because of the priests, the settlers on the eastern shore later moved likewise to the western shore.[3] Thence we became acquainted with the Ira and the others. The Ira (Iranians) are not ireful, but good people [165] who do not tolerate or worship statues of gods. They also will not permit temples or priests and, just like us, they uphold the sacred light of Festa, as well as maintaining permanent fires in their homes."
So the OLB tells us that the Hindu priests spoke practically the same language as the coming Frians via the Sindh?
And the Iranians were allready there, fled for these priests. They seem to have practically same culture as Frians (no idoltry, burning flame, ...) and are called good people (aryan, nolble?) while the name is pretended to be the opposite (ire, wrath).
Then both Iranians and Hindu priests must have been there allready speaking same "Frian"-like language when Geertman arrived via the sea.
Iranians coming from North-India into Iran, not the opposite.
Am I missing something?